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# Placement Paper Civil Engineering Questions 14 July 2012 by EIL

Details of Placement Paper Civil Engineering Questions 14 July 2012 by EIL conducted by EIL for job interview.
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EIL civil enginnering question with answers

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Bricks lose their strength by 25% when soaked in water.
2. Minimum crushing strength of brick in buildings should be 35 kg/cm
3. The size of modular type bricks is 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm including mortar thickness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: D

2. The correct statement in respect of a centrifugal pump is
A The discharge varies in direct proportion to speed as also square of the diameter
B. The head varies as the square of the speed as also of the square of the diameter
C. The discharge varies in inverse proportion to speed as also the cube of the diameter
D. The power varies as the head and square of the diameter.
Ans: B

3. Consider the following statements about theodolites:
1. Transit theodolite is a theodolite in which the telescope can be transited.
2. EDMI is a theodolite fitted with a micrometer for measurements.
3. A double reading theodolite is one in which diametrically opposite segments of the graduated circle are brought into view and the readings are averaged.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Ans: A

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Sensitivity of a natural soil deposit cannot be less than 1.0.
2. A saturated loose sand deposit liquefies when water flows through it in upward direction under critical hydraulic gradient.
3. A quick clay has a very high sensitivity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
Ans: A

5. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
A. inverse square of the diameter
B. inverse of the diameter
C. first power of its diameter
D. inverse of the fluid viscosity
Ans: D

6. Consider the following statements
1. At shrinkage, limit, th soil remains fully saturated.
2. The shear strength of all soils at liquid limit is the same.
3. The shear strength of all soils at plastic limit is the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: A

7. Refraction error is the least in case of
B. Tangential tachemetry
C. Subtense bar tacheometry
D. Omnimeters
Ans:C

8. In all reaction maximum efficiency is obtained if the
A. Guide vane angle is 90
B. Blade angle is 90 at the inlet
C. Blade angle is 90 at the outlet
D. Angle of the absolute velocity vector at the outlet is 90
Ans: D

9. . Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be the reason for cracking of
A. only floors is the building
B. walls and roof in the building
C. beams and columns in the building
D. only balcony in the building
Ans: D

10. Consider the following statements:
1. Drain values are provided at elevated, or higher, points to remove accumulated air.
2. Reflux valve allows flow in one direction only.
3. Drain valves are provided at low points to remove silt and other deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Ans: C

11. Match List-I with List-TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type of survey)
A. Traffic volume study
B. Speed and delay study
C. Spot-speed study
D. Multiple character Studies
List II (Method lintrurnent)
1. Works spotinterview method
3. Floating car method
4. Automatic vehicle counter and classifier
5.. Electronic detector
Code:
A B C D
A. 5 3 2 4
B. 1 3 2 5
C. 5 2 3 4
D. 1 2 4 3
Ans: A

12. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum value of group index for a soil be taken as zero.
2. The maximum possible value of group index for a soil is twenty.
Which of the above staternent is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A

13. A light-house is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. Distance between the station and the light house is 60 km. The height of the light house is
A. 243.5 m
B. 4.0 M
C. 287.4 m
D 5.4 m
Ans: A

14. Consider the following statements:
The disadvantages of employing steel pipes in conveyance and distribution of water are, they
1. cannot withstand high negative pressures or vacuums that may be created in them, especially the combined effects of vacuum and external loads of backfill and traffic .
2. are easily affected by acidic or alkaline waters and even atmospheric agencies may produce adverse effects on them.
3. Cannot be used for high pressures.(Generally not used for pressure above 7kg/cm)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: B

15. Consider the following statements:
The moment of momentum equation in fluid dynamies can be used
1. To find the torque exerted on sprinklers by water.
2. To determine the force in a flow passage, when stream changes direction! magnitude.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C

16. Garrets diagrams are used to
A. separate base flow from total runoff
B. correct inconsistency in rainfall data
C. determine reservoir capacity
D. design channels
Ans: D

17. Consider the following statements:
The critical value of Reynolds number at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent depends upon
1. Turbulence in ambient flow
2. Surface roughness.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? . .
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only ,
D. Both 1 and 2
Ans: D

18. In a transit theodolite, error due to eccentricity
of verniers is eliminated by reading
A. both verniers
B. both right swing and left swing
C. right and left faces
D. different parts of main scale
Ans: A

19. An aeroplane is cruising at a speed of 800 km/ h at an. altitude where the air temperature is 0C. The flight Mach number at this speed is nearly
A. 1.3
B. 0.67
C. 0.25
D. 2.4
Ans: B

20. Light reflecting devices used to guide the driver along the proper alignment are called
A. Rumble strips
B. Delineators
C.Attenuators
D. Litter bin
Ans: B

21.The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when tha head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to
B. half of the total supply head
C. one-third of the supply head
D. one-fourth of the total supply head

22. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are
A. bent forward
B. bent backward
C. straight
D. wave-shaped

23.Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant?
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Integrated sample
D. Any sample

24.Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
A. So2
B. No2
C. Cl2
D. Co

25.If an SPT test gave the average blow count of 32 in fine sand below water table, then what is the corrected value of blow count?
A. 22.1
B. 23.5
C. 24.2
D. 24.8

26. What is the treatment for making timber fire-resistant?
A. ASCU treatment
B. Abels process
C. Creosoting
D. Tarring

27. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 Gpa and Poissons ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
A. 74.0 Gpa
B. 80.0 Gpa
C. 100.0 Gpa
D. 128.5 Gpa

28. Given E as the Youngs modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity ?
A. E/2
B. E/3
C. E/4
D. E/5

29.Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?
A. Compression test
B. Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
C. Split test
D. Tension test

30.What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?
A. 0.5 to 1.0
B. 1.0 to 1.25
C. 1.25 to 1.5
D. 10 to 20

31. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn2
B. 0.75 kN/ rn2
C. 1.35 kN/ rn2
D. 1.50 kN/ rn2
Ans:A

32. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
Ans:C

33. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
Ans:D

34. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
Ans:A

35. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm2 . and 300 kg/cm2 . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
Ans:B

36. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poissons distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
Ans:C

37. Poissons ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
Ans:B

38. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
Ans:B

39. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
Ans:B

40. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
Ans: B

41. The head on a sharp-crested rectangular weir of height 1.6 m and crest length 1.2 m was incorrectly observed to be
0.13 m when it was actually 0.15 m. What was the percentage error in the computed value of flow rate?
A. 0.5%
B. 1.0%
C. 2.0%
D.1.5%
Ans. C

42. Consider the following with respect to measurement of stream flow during flood:
l. Timing of the travel of floats released in the stream
2. Use of weir formula, for spillways provided on a dam
3. Calculation of flow through a contracted opening at a bridge
4. Using a current meter
Which of the above is/are reliable and accurate?
A. 1
B. 4 only
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans. B

43. What is the most important design parameter used in designing a continuous flow rectangular sedimentation tank for removal of discrete particles?
A. Length of the tank
B. Surface overflow rate
C. Depth of the tank
D. Temperature of the water to be treated
Ans. B

44. Effluent from a wastewater treatment plant (flow rate = 8640 m3/d, temperature = 25 C) is discharged to a surface stream (flow rate = 1.2 m3/s, temperature = 15 C). What is the temperature of the stream after mixing?
A. 10C
B. 15.77 C
C. 20 C
D. 24.99 C
Ans. B

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Type of impurity) (Harm caused)
A. Excess of nitrates 1. Brackish water
B. Excess of fluorides 2. Goiter
C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones
D. Excess of chlorides 4. . Blue babies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. c

46. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25 C. What is the pH of the water sample?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Ans. D

47. Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant?
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Integrated sample
D. Any sample
Ans. A

48. A drain carrying sewage of BOD = 200 mg/L and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river whose upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow rate is 500 m3/s. Assume immediate and complete mixing of drain with the river. What is the estimated downstream BOD of the river flow?
A. 20.4 mg/L
B. 25.4 mg/L
C. 104.4 mg/L
D. 70.4 mg/L
Ans. B

49. A 12.5 mL sample of treated wastewater requires 187.5 mL of odor-free distilled water to reduce the odor to a level that is just
perceptible. What is the threshold odor number (TON) for the wastewater sample?
A. 0.07
B. 1.07
C. 15
D. 16.
Ans. (d)

50. Which one of the following parameters is not included in the routine characterization of, solid waste for its physical composition?
A. Moisture content
B. Density
C. Particle size analysis
D. Energy value
Ans. D

51. Which one of the following processes of water softening requires recarbonation?
A. Lime-soda ash process
B. Hydrogen-cation exchanger process
C. Sodium-cation exchanger process
D. Demineralization
Ans. A

52. Math List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Water/Wastewater treatment) (Operating problem)
A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head
B. Activated sludge process 2. Fly-breeding
C. Rapid gravity filter 3. Sludge bulking
D. Anaerobic sludge digester 4. pH reduction
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)

53. Consider the following treatment process units in a water treatment plant:
1. Coagulation
2. Disinfection
3. Sedimentation
4. Filtration
Which is the correct sequence of the process units in the water treatment plant?
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-4-3-2
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-3-4-2
Ans. (d)

54. Which one of the following tests of water/ wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as indicator?
A. Hardness.
B. COD
C. Residual chlorine
D. DO
Ans. A

55. Which of the following pollutants are generally not removed in a sewage treatment plant?
A. Inorganic suspended solids
B. Dissolved organic solids
C. Oil and grease
D. Dissolved inorganic, solids
Ans. B

56. A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a void ratio of 1.22, was subjected to a compressive load. After the clay sample
was completely consolidated, its thickness was measured to be 24 mm. What is the final void ratio?
A. 1.322
B. 1.421
C. 1.311
D. 1.050
Ans. D

57. For a sandy soil with soil grains spherical in shape and uniform in size, what is the theoretical void ratio?
A. 0.61
B. 0.71
C. 0.91
D. 0.81
Ans. C

58. A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic limit = 20, shrinkage limit = 10 and natural moisture content = 25%. What will be its liquidity index, plasticity index and shrinkage index?
A. 0.67, 15 and 25
B. 0.33, 15 and 10
C. 0.67, 25 and 15
D. 0.33, 20 and 15
Ans. B

59. A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 during a standard Proctor Compaction test. If the specific gravity is 2.65, what would be its void ratio?
A. 0.552
B. 0.624
C. 0.712
D. 0.583
Ans. B

60. Consider the following:
1. Increase in shear strength and bearing capacity
2. Increase in slope stability
3. Decrease in settlement of soil
4. Decrease in permeability
Which of the above with respect to compaction of soil is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

61. Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
A. SO2
B. NO2
C. Cl2
D. CO
Ans. A

62. Assuming annual travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2.0 g/km/vehicle?
A. 1800 tonnes
B. 1900 tonnes
C. 2000 tonnes
D. 2100 tonnes
Ans. C

63. What are the air pollutants responsible for acid rain within and downwind areas of major industrial emissions?
A. Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of nitrogen
B. Sulfure dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide
D. methane and hydrogen sulfide
Ans. B

64. Consider the following air pollutants:
1. NOx
2. PAN
3. CO2
4. CO
Which of the above air pollutants is/are present in an auto exhaust gas?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

65. Which one of the following conditions is valid in case of unconfined compression test in comparison to triaxial test?
A. Minor principal stress = 0
B. Minor principal stress = 0.5 major principal stress
C. Minor principal stress = major principal stress
D. Major principal stress = 3 minor principal stress
Ans. A

66. Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when
(A) Clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(C) Sand particles settle on river bed
(D) Sand particles settle on sea bed

67. During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.0mm penetration is 50kg.
The CBR value of the soil will be
(A) 10.0%
(B) 5.0%
(C) 3.6%
(D) 2.4%

68. A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100mm and a wall thickness of 25mm. The allowable shear stress in the shaft is 125MPa.
The maximum torque the shaft can transmit is
(A) 46kN m
(B) 24.5kN m
(C) 23kN m
(D) 11.5kN m

69. A rectangular concrete beam of width 120mm and depth 200mm is prestressed by pretensioning to a force of 150kN at an eccentricity of 20mm. The cross sectional area of the prestressing steel is 187.5mm2. Take modulus of elasticity of steel and concrete as 5 2.110 MPa and 4 3.010 MPa respectively. The percentage loss of stress in the prestressing steel due to elastic deformation of concrete is
(A) 8.75
(B) 6.125
(C) 4.81
(D) 2.19

70. Water flows through a 100mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015m/sec. If the kinematic viscosity of water is 6 2 1.13 10− m / sec, the friction factor of the pipe material is
(A) 0.0015
(B) 0.032
(C) 0.037
(D) 0.048

71. A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30% of particles have settling velocities of 0.1mm/s, 0.2mm/s, 0.2mm/s, and 1.0mm/s respectively. What would be the total percentage of particles removed if clarifier operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) of 43.2m3/m2.d?
(A) 43%
(B) 56%
(C) 86%
(D) 100%

72. The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling out the pile from the ground is
(A) 104.9kN
(B) 209.8kN
(C) 236kN
(D) 472kN

73. The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and homogeneous material is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

74. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation at one end and free at the other end is
(A) 0.5 L
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 1.414 L
(D) 2L

75. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the plasticity chart, according to IS classification, the soil is represented by the letter symbols
(A) CL
(B) CI
(C) CH
(D) CL-ML

76. A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content, high organic materials, low calorific value and low inorganic materials. The most effective and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting
(B) Dumping in sea
(C) Incineration
(D) Landfill

77. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) Rules, 2000, of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, India, the day time and night time noise level limits in ambient air for residential areas expressed in dB(A) Leg are
(A) 50 and 40
(B) 55 and 45
(C) 65 and 55
(D) 75 and 70

78. Aggregate impact value indicates the following property of aggregates
(A) Durability
(B) Toughness
(C) Hardness
(D) Strength

79. The Froude number of flown in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow is 1.5m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80m
(B) 1.56m
(C) 1.36m
(D) 1.29m

80. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio Vascular problems
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
(D) Increased laundry expenses

81. The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil solids were found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit weight of water to be 10kN / m3, the saturated unit weight (kN/m3), and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4, 0.81
(B) 18.5, 0.30
(C) 19.4. 0.45
(D) 18.5, 0.45

82. 50g of CO2 and 25g of CH4 are produced from the decomposition of municipal solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight of 120g. What is the average per capita green house gas production in a city of 1 million people with a MSW production rate of 500 ton / day?
(A) 104 g/day
(B) 120 g/day
(C) 208 g/day
(D) 313 g /day

83. The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2m x 3m rectangular footing due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN / m2 below the centre of a 4m x 6m rectangular footing at the same depth and same load intensity?
(A) 25
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 400

84. There is a free overfall at the end of a long open channel. For a given flow rate, the critical depth is less than the normal depth. What gradually varied flow profile will occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) S1

85. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio Vascular problems
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
(D) Increased laundry expenses

86. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from the following.
(A) Ductility test
(B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point Test
(D) Viscosity test

87. The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter 20mm and thickness 2mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 N.m will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(B) 10MPa and 80MPa
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa
(D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa

88. Two primary air pollutants are
(A) sulphur oxide and ozone
(B) nitrogen oxide and peroxyacetylnitrate
(C) sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(D) ozone and peroxyacetynitrate

88. Two biodegradable components of municipal solid waste are
(A) plastics and wood
(B) cardboard and glass
(C) leather and tin cans
(D) food wastes and garden trimmings

89. The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC: 67-2001 is
(A) circular
(B) triangular
(C) octagonal
(D) rectangular

90. The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called
(A) Geodetic surveying
(B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying
(D) Topographical surveying

91. Un-factored maximum bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete beam resulting from a frame analysis are 50, 80, 120 and 180kNm under dead, live, wind and earthquake loads respectively. The design moment (kNm) as per IS: 456- 2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(A) 195
(B) 250
(C) 345
(D) 372

92. The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10m to 1cm is reduced in such a way that a line originally 10cm long now measures 9cm. the area of the reduced plan is measured as 81cm2. the actual (m2) of the survey is
(A) 10000
(B) 6561
(C) 1000
(D) 656

93. When a retaining wall moves away from the back-fill, the pressure exerted on the wall is termed as
(A) Passive earth pressure
(B) Swelling pressure
(C) Pore pressure
(D) Active earth pressure

94. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in case of
(A) moist silty sand
(C) clay of medium compressibility
(D) silt of high compressibility

95. A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed through a large reservoir. The outflow hydrograph will have
(A) attenuated peak with reduced time-base
(B) attenuated peak with increased time-base
(C) increased peak with increased time-base
(D) increased peak with reduced time-base

96. The capacities of One-way 1.5m wide sidewalk (persons per hour) and Oneway 2-lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing vehicles and very little cross traffic) are respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400
(B) 1800 and 2000
(C) 1200 and 1500
(D) 2000 and 1200

97. A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange to the bottom end Q. A weight W is dropped vertically from a height h (